Is morality objective or subjective?

Should you think about your duty, or about the consequences of your actions? Or should you concentrate on becoming a good person?

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Immanuel Can
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Immanuel Can »

Belinda wrote: Tue Jul 10, 2018 7:15 pm Altruism is better when it's sharpened by reason and knowledge.
Even more than that: when altruism is unguided by reason and facts, it's dangerous. It encourages us to have strong passions to do stupid and hurtful things, like I was suggesting. Our government, that turfed the mentally-ill out into the streets, did it in the name of "compassion," "fairness," "normalization," and "decency." It was still a terrible thing to do.

It reminds one of what they say about "the road to Hell..." :wink:
Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Immanuel Can

I apologise for butting in, but what you say here is ridiculous. It's as though you've taken no account of repeated explanations of the nature of subjectivity.
The point is that even today, subjectivists are rationally forced to conclude that slavery was also right, on the basis that the slave owners believed it was right. Indeed, since their whole society and whole half of the US thought it was right, even the subjectivist who tries to appeal to group-belief has to think slavery was right.

I don't, of course. But did you realize that that is exactly what moral subjectivism implies?
Let me try again, and let's see if you can focus on and actually address this explanation.

1 The moral assertion slavery is wrong expresses a value judgement about slavery, as does the moral assertion slavery is right. If someone believes slavery is wrong, that means they make a moral judgement about slavery. Similarly, if someone believes slavery is right, that means they make a moral judgement about slavery. Do you agree so far?

2 The fact that someone believes slavery is wrong has no implications for the person who believes slavery is right, and vice versa. That someone believes slavery is wrong doesn't mean anyone else has to believe slavery is wrong. And that someone believes slavery is right doesn't mean anyone else has to believe slavery is right. Do you agree so far?

3 There's a reason why one person's moral judgement has no implications for - does not entail - anyone else's moral judgement. And that's because a moral judgement is not a true or false factual assertion. If it were a moral fact that an action is right, then someone who believes that action is wrong would be objectively wrong to hold that belief - and doing so would be irrational. But if it were a moral fact that an action is wrong, then the same is true for someone who believes that action is right. Either way, in effect there could be no rational argument about the action.

4 So your claim that, because slave owners believed slavery is right, anyone else has to believe slavery is right, is simply false - it doesn't logically follow. And it comes from your (I think by now wilful) misconstrual of subjectivity. Moral subjectivism doesn't mean that anyone's belief that an action is good MAKES that action good, or that anyone's belief that an action is bad MAKES that action bad. That is to completely misunderstand the nature of moral assertions, and their radical difference from factual assertions.

Please, before you bristle and demand to know whether moral subjectivists think slavery really is right or wrong - and how are we supposed to tell if all we have is our opinions? - stop and go through my explanation again. Never know - the penny may drop.
Last edited by Peter Holmes on Wed Jul 11, 2018 4:14 pm, edited 1 time in total.
Judaka
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

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The point is that even today, subjectivists are rationally forced to conclude that slavery was also right, on the basis that the slave owners believed it was right. Indeed, since their whole society and whole half of the US thought it was right, even the subjectivist who tries to appeal to group-belief has to think slavery was right.
Subjective morality would mean that there is no ONE morality, you keep treating subjective morality as though it needs to operate in the same way objective morality would.

The individual chooses what is moral/immoral based on their value structure and creates their morality, which is not held by others. Similarities exist due to similarities in nature and nurture from person to person.
They have zero rational warrant for doing it. As you say, these people are "dictators," to use your word. They "dictate" to others what they can and cannot do, without one hint of actual rational authority for doing it.

That's moral subjectivism. Power rules. Rationality in moral matters is framed by them as impossible because, as they say, there are no facts about morality.
That's how morality works, it is enforced using power. You can try to persuade others to your point of view but ultimately morality includes your ideas about how others should behave and while you aren't required to exert your ideas on others, morality would be pretty pointless as a concept if you didn't.

I know that in your world, subjectivity simply means preference, but I haven't decided that morality is subjective just because I wanted it to be. I can't ignore inconvenient truths and pretend things are what they aren't, that's the same as just sticking your head in the sand and hoping all goes well.
You don't know if it's wrong. You think it's wrong, maybe. And you want it to be wrong, maybe. But you have no way of knowing for sure that you're right, if you're a moral subjectivist.

For a subjectivist, the "mature" view might still be that slavery is right. Who defines "mature," in a subjectivist world?

That's a good reason for questioning moral subjectivism, isn't it?
If morality is subjective, then slavery can only be thought to be wrong as there is no such thing as a thing being objectively right or wrong. That is the entire basis for the understanding. Mature is similarly determined by individuals, groups and organisations and alternative definitions compete for usage as culture and society advance.

You think a good reason for questioning moral subjectivism is that it's inconvenient but I don't share your view.

It's kind of silly that this far into the conversation, you don't appear to have even the most basic understanding of what morality looks like in a subjective morality framework. You don't even appear to understand what subjectivity is, mistaking it with preference constantly and refusing to be corrected.

I don't see any reason to continue this conversation, I will excuse myself from it.

@ Peterholmes

I mostly agree with your summary of our position, although I never made an argument that viewing morality as objective would bring superior results - I acknowledge that a very good argument can be made for it which shouldn't be taken lightly. It mostly comes down to what degree people can assert their value structure as being meaningful and worthwhile.

Nice talking with you.
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Immanuel Can
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Immanuel Can »

Judaka wrote: Wed Jul 11, 2018 2:59 pm
Subjective morality would mean that there is no ONE morality, you keep treating subjective morality as though it needs to operate in the same way objective morality would.
Not at all. Subjectivism means no objective truth about morality. Therefore, it would not be objectively true that slavery is wrong.
The individual chooses what is moral/immoral based on their value structure and creates their morality, which is not held by others. Similarities exist due to similarities in nature and nurture from person to person.

So your conclusion has to be that slavery was wrong for the northern Republicans, and not at all wrong for the southern Democrats.
That's how morality works, it is enforced using power.
Correction: that is how subjective morality can be defended...and in no other way.
You can try to persuade
Then do it. Persuade the southerners that they were wrong to have slaves. What reasons can you give that they should not have done that?
If morality is subjective, then slavery can only be thought to be wrong
Not true. Verifiably false, in fact.

The southern Democrats were absolutely adamant that their precious institution of slavery was their right. In fact, they were quite willing to go to war to say so, as you know. So you'd have to call the whole south a bunch of liars, who knew what they were doing was wrong, and were faking it when they said it was right and they would die for it.
You think a good reason for questioning moral subjectivism is that it's inconvenient

No. It's rationally incoherent. That's the reason.
I don't see any reason to continue this conversation, I will excuse myself from it.

Of course you may. Thank you for your time.
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Immanuel Can
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Immanuel Can »

Peter Holmes wrote: Wed Jul 11, 2018 2:54 pm Immanuel Can

I apologise for butting in,
No problem. It's your OP.
Let me try again, and let's see if you can focus on and actually address this explanation.
1 The moral assertion slavery is wrong expresses a value judgement about slavery, as does the moral assertion slavery is right. If someone believes slavery is wrong, that means they make a moral judgement about slavery. Similarly, if someone believes slavery is right, that means they make a moral judgement about slavery. Do you agree so far?
Yes, with the insertion of one word, to which you can hardly object: "subjective." What you are saying is only true if we know already that morality is subjective.

But we don't. Nobody has proved that in this conversation so far. In fact, as soon as we get back to the question of legitimation, everybody dries right up and goes off in a different direction.
2 The fact that someone believes slavery is wrong has no implications for the person who believes slavery is right, and vice versa. That someone believes slavery is wrong doesn't mean anyone else has to believe slavery is wrong. And that someone believes slavery is right doesn't mean anyone else has to believe slavery is right. Do you agree so far?
If subjective morality is how things are, yes. If not, no.
3 There's a reason why one person's moral judgement has no implications for - does not entail - anyone else's moral judgement. And that's because a moral judgement is not a true or false factual assertion. If it were a moral fact that an action is right, then someone who believes that action is wrong would be objectively wrong to hold that belief - and doing so would be irrational. But if it were a moral fact that an action is wrong, then the same is true for someone who believes that action is right. Either way, in effect there could be no rational argument about the action.
That is exactly how the proponents of subjective morality have to think things are. Correct.
4 So your claim that, because slave owners believed slavery is right, anyone else has to believe slavery is right, is simply false - it doesn't logically follow. And it comes from your (I think by now wilful) misconstrual of subjectivity. Moral subjectivism doesn't mean that anyone's belief that an action is good MAKES that action good, or that anyone's belief that an action is bad MAKES that action bad. That is to completely misunderstand the nature of moral assertions, and their radical difference from factual assertions.
Incorrect. What you say WOULD be true if subjective morality were all we could have. But it would be false if slavery were actually objectively wrong. Then we could tell southerners, "You may all feel you want slaves, and you may think you have a right to slaves; but you don't. You're objectively wrong."
Please, before you bristle and demand to know whether moral subjectivists think slavery really is right or wrong - and how are we supposed to tell if all we have is our opinions?
Go back to what I said in step 1. What you've done is simply presumed that subjective morality is a correct description of what morality is. Then all your steps from there are correct, but they stand of a foundation of nothing but sand. You haven't shown that subjective morality is legitimate morality. And because it's not legitimate, nobody has to take it seriously -- not even the person who holds it, who may change his mind any time he wants, with no subjective moralist having sound reasons to complain if he does.

The good news: as a moral subjectivist, you can own slaves tomorrow, if you can get a few people or a local culture to agree with you. :shock:
Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Moral objectivism is irrational and dangerous.

It's irrational because it makes a category error, failing to distinguish between factual assertions about what is, and moral assertions expressing judgements about what ought to be.

And it's dangerous because mistaking a moral judgement for a fact is what allows religious persecutors, inquisitors, slave-owners, suicide bombers, the organisers of genocide - and so on - to feel justified in what they do.
Belinda
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

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Peter Holmes wrote: Wed Jul 11, 2018 12:31 pm Hi, Belinda.

So, if I've got it right, your argument is as follows.

1 All humans have the same nature, because it's innate to our species.
2 That nature is inherently altruistic. We naturally have a disinterested and selfless concern for the well-being of others.
3 Immorality is something we may learn from our environment, upbringing and social influences.
4 There is an objective criterion for moral goodness: that which favours life over death.

Do these need tweaking or adding to?

1. There is some evidence that there are innate features related to human altruism. a) the possibility for altruism to develop with age and exposure to altruistic behaviour. b) mirror neurons c) maternal hormones and humans' lengthy dependence on the mother and her milk. Possibility is sometimes underrated.

2.Nature as a word for the ordered system (if there be cosmic order;another discussion) that regulates existence i.e. natura naturans,is not inherently anything, although altruism is possible and also manifests occasionally in certain living natura naturata.That altruism manifests occasionally implies that it must be at least possible. The possible becomes manifest when it's exposed to the right environment for altruism to thrive. By extension, there are societies where that environment is lacking. This political implication is why your question is important.

3.If 'learning' includes indoctrination or mental castration then I agree.

4.I agree.
Last edited by Belinda on Wed Jul 11, 2018 4:48 pm, edited 1 time in total.
Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Immanuel Can.

Like the others, I give up. This became silly some time ago. Hope springs eternal, I suppose. Mine seems to have dried up.
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Immanuel Can
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Immanuel Can »

Peter Holmes wrote: Wed Jul 11, 2018 4:39 pm Moral objectivism is irrational
Not if it's grounded in ontological reality. Only if it weren't.
... and dangerous.
Sometimes: especially when a group of people holds wrong ontological beliefs and based on them, questionable morals themselves, but feels certain. That is very dangerous.
It's irrational because it makes a category error, failing to distinguish between factual assertions about what is, and moral assertions expressing judgements about what ought to be.
You're right that Materialism cannot ground any morality at all. That's the ontological problem, you see. So if Materialism were true, we'd all have to be complete moral nihilists, or else hypocritical subjectivist dictators-by-power.
And it's dangerous because mistaking a moral judgement for a fact is what allows religious persecutors, inquisitors, slave-owners, suicide bombers, the organisers of genocide - and so on - to feel justified in what they do.
This is true. But it is also true that objective morality empowers people to feed the hungry and sick, to reform prisons, to give aid to foreign peoples, to send medical missionaries into malarial swamps (where they may die treating people who, from a subjectivist perspective they would not have to care about), and to believe that all men and women are made in the image of God, and so cannot ever justly be enslaved, raped or abused, no matter what anyone else may think about that.

Objective morality is even what grounds your unalienable right to freedom of conscience, as John Locke showed. So objective morality preserves all our important freedoms and rights...and wrongheaded objective morality is used to justify suicide bombs, female "circumcision" and child "brides."

There's a highly beneficial and a dangerous side to objectivism about morality. To believe in it wrongly is dangerous, yes. To believe in it on the actual ontological facts is to do the objectively right thing.
Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Thanks, Belinda. That gives me a clearer picture.

In 2 I should have written 'Human nature', not 'That nature'. I apologise for the lack of clarity.

I'll mull over what you say.
Belinda
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Belinda »

Peter Holmes wrote:
It's irrational (objective morality) because it makes a category error, failing to distinguish between factual assertions about what is, and moral assertions expressing judgements about what ought to be.
I don't believe that you mean to imply that all moral assertions lack reason and knowledge, and that any rationales for moral assertions are nothing but rationalisations.I must be missing something.
And it's dangerous because mistaking a moral judgement for a fact is what allows religious persecutors, inquisitors, slave-owners, suicide bombers, the organisers of genocide - and so on - to feel justified in what they do.
This happens when ideology is divorced from facts. Ideology is as bad as you say it is when it's divorced from ordinary human sympathy. David Hume himself believed in ordinary human sympathy as a matter of fact, and this was not despite his enlightenment world view and scepticism but was a necessary component of them.
Peter Holmes
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Peter Holmes »

Immanuel Can

Your theism explains your desperation to defend moral objectivism, contrary to the accepted definitions of the words 'objective' and 'subjective' - the irony being that, if moral judgements are factual, their source, human or divine - like that of factual assertions - is irrelevant. And your reference to materialism - a complete straw man here - betrays your commitment to substance dualism, on which theism depends. So where you're coming from is clear. But these are different issues and claims.
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Immanuel Can
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Immanuel Can »

Peter Holmes wrote: Wed Jul 11, 2018 5:17 pm Immanuel Can

Your theism explains your desperation...
This is what's called an "ad hominem" argument. It's a fallacy.

You can see this for yourself: for even were I, and every other moral objectivist "desperate," it would not go one step toward suggesting moral subjectivism was rationally defensible.

So back to the OP. Have you got that rational defence of your claim that morality is subjective?

No?

It's okay. Nobody has one, it would seem.
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Dalek Prime »

Humans have to agree on a certain standard of morality, if only for practical reasons of self-preservation. If we were all murdering each other, we wouldnt get very far.
Belinda
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Re: Is morality objective or subjective?

Post by Belinda »

Dalek Prime wrote: Wed Jul 11, 2018 6:06 pm Humans have to agree on a certain standard of morality, if only for practical reasons of self-preservation. If we were all murdering each other, we wouldnt get very far.
That is the correct explanation of morality as a necessary component of a society. However when we compare different societies' notions of morality we find that some societies' moralities are horrible to us, and others are more pleasing to us.

The problem is not that morality is necessary for a society to be a society, but whether or not all human individuals in all societies share the same basic ideas of good and bad.
Quite clearly they don't. Some societies exist or existed where the majority of individuals believe that it's great to go out and kill animals for fun. And there was Nazi Germany. And present day Israel where they permitted neighbouring Arabs to be burned with white phosphorus.
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