Veritas Aequitas wrote: ↑Thu Nov 23, 2023 3:55 am
Realists do consider the way the person arrives at a conclusion as objective, but that which is objective [and its objectivity] must be related to reality and things that are mind-independent or in PH's case independent of the human conditions.
Well, yes, that's realism. But when deciding if something (a process, an argument, a protocol) is objective, they aren't checking to see if the person is relating to a mind-independent reality.
There are many senses to objectivity and the OP is about two main senses.
The "objectivity" as quoted from SEP is the general sense of objectivity which is the FSK sense, i.e. related to the scientific FSK.
But the realists [philosophical] ground the above objectivity to objective-reality that is mind-independent, note the below;
Yeah, well, that's realism.
- The terms “objectivity” and “subjectivity,” in their modern usage, generally relate to a perceiving subject (normally a person) and a perceived or unperceived object.
The object is something that presumably exists independent of the subject’s perception of it.
In other words, the object would be there, as it is, even if no subject perceived it. Hence, objectivity is typically associated with ideas such as reality, truth and reliability.
As it would be for antirealist: they would also be interested in truth and reliability. Reality would mean something different to them, it's mind dependent.
In the above case, what are objective things and objective reality is that which exists as mind-independent or in PH's case independent of the human conditions.
I have argued the p-realists has adopted the above objectivity as an ideology driven by an evolutionary default.
To p-realists what is objectivity must be grounded on their supposed mind-independent objects or things.
Well, even the realist scientist is going to ground objectivity on observations and methodologies they consider objective. They can't submit a paper with the things in themselves. They submit papers with data about observations, that hopefully will be refound by other scientists. They will consider their work objective if the methodology is logical, isolates variables and so on.
Yes, they think that there are objects that do not depend on the existence of human minds to exist. That how they view ontology. But objectivity is all about rigorous methodology and repeatable results. It's empirical, generally.
Note PH and his like claim that Morality is not objective [no objectivity to morality], on the basis that there are no moral facts [objects] that are mind-independent or in PH's case independent of the human conditions.
My point with the OP is,
if objectivity can be applied to science [as in the SEP article] why not morality?
If we can FSK-ed science, we can also FSK-ed morality while leaving the question of how credible is the Moral-FSK as compared to the scientific FSK [the most credible as the standard].
There is no single moral-FSK. I think this is one of the biggest hurdles. You refer repeatedly to THE moral FSK. But there are many moral FSKs. Science, for example, as part of it's rigor eliminates cultural effects, for example. Catholic scientists in Potrugal and atheist scientists in England will reach the same results.
If you have Spartans who focus on nobility and certain specific traits as the goals of morality and compare them to a modern professor's consequentialist morality with other values, we have no scientific process to determine which of them is objective.
Let's say you decide to evaluate each on how good people feel in those frameworks...
that's a value judgment that you have that the two Moral FSK should be evaluated by how people thrive in them. That's either siding with the consequentialist or coming from a 3rd Moral FSK.
Let's say you focus on surival.
That is also a value judgment from a particular moral FSK. We should prioritize survival first. But to a Spartan nobility of character might be the priority, survival be damned. (and there are moden spartans). We can't run to the microscope to see who is right. Because each Moral FSK includes its own criteria for evaluating the FSKs.
PH and other moral facts deniers just cannot simply declare 'morality cannot be objective' i.e. there is no objectivity with morality.
Well, it seems like PH doesn't just declare this, but goes on to give his reasoning.