It’s good that you have decided to speak the truth now. I am still waiting for the credible source of the statistics you posted earlier on this thread. It was high time you start speaking the truth about the source of those numbers.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Wed Oct 25, 2023 2:41 pmIt's not such a marvel. If I can't know that you are speaking truth, then I can still speak truth myself, should I have the chance.Averroes wrote: ↑Tue Oct 24, 2023 8:21 pmI find it amazing that all this time you had no trouble discussing with me but suddenly after my last post only, you are finding it impossible to discuss with me! What happened?? Anyway, let’s address those factors that suddenly arose and are causing you so much trouble if God wills.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Mon Oct 23, 2023 5:49 pm I'd love to think you mean that. And I'd love to think we could do it. But there are two factors from Islam that make it impossible for me to believe that.
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Galatians in the New Testament of the Christian Bible is a letter written by Paul (who never met Jesus) in which he expresses his opinions addressed to the people of Galatia. You said: “it explains that God's very purpose was that the curse of mankind should be placed on God's Son, so that man might be forgiven”. This is the statement about which the Rabbi in the video I linked to you before says that anyone who believes in that is “thick headed”, an “idiot” and “retarded”. Here is the video again if you want to refresh your memory:https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Zy-RnubpsAkImmanuel Can wrote: ↑Wed Oct 25, 2023 2:41 pm For in the New Testament, it explains that God's very purpose was that the curse of mankind should be placed on God's Son, so that man might be forgiven. So we read: "Christ redeemed us from the curse of the Law, having become a curse for us—for it is written: “Cursed is everyone who hangs on a tree”— in order that in Christ Jesus the blessing of Abraham would come to the Gentiles, so that we would receive the promise of the Spirit through faith." (Gal. 3:13-14)
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Let’s be exact about the description of the facts. As you mentioned, first biblical Jesus came “only”[excluding the gentiles] to the Jews, as per Mathew 15:24:Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Mon Oct 23, 2023 5:49 pmThat verse is not "abrogated." It's descriptive of a phase of ministry of Christ, where he FIRST came to the Jews, THEN came to the Gentiles.3. In Mathew 15:24, biblical Jesus says that he was sent only to the Jews who were lost.
If that verse is not abrogated then you and all gentiles cannot be followers of Jesus, as you are not Jews.
- He answered, “I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel.”[Mathew 15:24]
- He answered, “I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel.”[Mathew 15:24]
- He said to them, “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to all creation.[Mark 16:15]
Don't you know how abrogation is construed in law? Let me educate you.
From Cornell Law School Website, we can read the following:
The judgement can be found here: https://casetext.com/case/ferency-v-secretary-of-stateCornell Law School wrote:To abrogate is to formally annul or repeal a law through an act of legislation, constitutional authority, or custom. For example, the Supreme Court of Michigan explained in Ferency v. Secretary of State that “an existing constitutional provision is altered or abrogated if proposed amendment would add to, delete from or change existing wording of provision, or would render it fully inoperative.” Link: https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/abrogate
To be clear, as per Ferency vs Secretary of State, the SC of Michigan stated that adding to the existing wording of a provision is an instance of abrogation. This is basic legal concept of how abrogation is construed.
And similarly with divorce where the valid conditions or grounds for divorce in the Law of Moses in Deuteronomy 24:1, were changed by biblical Jesus in Mathew 19:9. But let us examine this further because your understanding of the legal concept of abrogation is clearly mediocre (I am being polite here, for your understanding is clearly inexistent in reality).
In Deuteronomy 24:1, a man can divorce his wife on grounds other than adultery. In fact, in the Law of Moses, according to some biblical commentators, adultery would not be a ground for divorce because adultery resulted in the death of the adulterer. Below I have provided some of these commentators exegesis after quoting Deuteronomy 24:1.
- When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.[Deuteronomy 24:1]
Benson commentary:
Deuteronomy 24:1. Some uncleanness — Some hateful thing, some distemper of body, or quality of mind, not observed before marriage: or some light carriage, as this phrase commonly signifies, but not amounting to adultery.
Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary
Uncleanness; Heb. nakedness, or shamefulness, or filthiness of a thing, i.e. some filthy or hateful thing, some loathsome distemper of body or quality of mind, not observed before marriage; or some light and unchaste carriage, as this or the like phrase commonly signifies, but not amounting to adultery, which was not punished with divorce, but with death.
Gill's Exposition of the Entire Bible:
because he hath found some uncleanness in her; something that he disliked, and was disagreeable to him, and which made their continuance together in the marriage state very uncomfortable; which led him on to be very ill-natured, severe, and cruel to her; so that her life was exposed to danger, or at least become very uneasy; in which case a divorce was permitted, both for the badness of the man's heart, and in favour of the woman, that she might be freed from such rigorous usage. This word "uncleanness" does not signify adultery, or any of the uncleannesses forbidden in Leviticus 18:6; because that was punishable with death,
Link for commentaries: https://biblehub.com/commentaries/deuteronomy/24-1.htm
While in Mathew 19:9, it is stated that sexual immorality or adultery is the only condition for divorce before remarriage of a man:
- I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.” [Mathew 19:9]
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Here again, your ignorance of your own scriptures shines. Notice that you quoted me talking about Trinitarian theology, but you failed miserably again to recognise the implication of this term. And if someone was still in doubt about abrogation in the Bible, Paul explicitly talks about abrogation in his letter to Ephesians.Immanuel Can wrote: ↑Mon Oct 23, 2023 5:49 pmAgain, it does not. From Genesis on, God is described in Torah as a compound unity.The whole Trinitarian theology depends existentially on the principle of abrogation.
You will not find any principle of "abrogation" in Christianity. Rather, you will find this declaration from Jesus Christ Himself,
“Do not presume that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to abolish, but to fulfill. For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest letter or stroke of a letter shall pass from the Law, until all is accomplished!" (Matthew 5:17-18)
So Jesus Christ accomplished the Law, and did not abolish.
Paul wrote in Ephesians 2:13-15 :
- 13. But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.
14. For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;
15. Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;
So who is right, Mathew 5:17-18 or Ephesians 2:13-15? Or both, I.e. there is and there is not abrogation at the same time in the same respect? Or neither? Anyway, let's not get into the subject of the contradictions in the Bible again as we already addressed that on other threads before. However, it is abundantly clear now that you are embarrassingly ignorant of your own Bible.Mathew Pooles wrote:Having abolished; abrogated, taken away the power of binding men.
In his flesh; not the flesh of sacrificed beasts but his own flesh: before he mentioned his blood, and now his flesh, to imply the whole sacrifice of Christ, comprehending his flesh as well as blood. The ceremonies had their accomplishment in Christ, and so their abolishment by him.
The enmity; by a metonymy he so calls the ceremonies, which were the cause and the sign of enmity between Jew and Gentile: the Jews hated the Gentiles as uncircumcised, and the Gentiles despised the Jews for being circumcised.
Even the law of commandments contained in ordinances: either, by the law of commandments, the apostle means the law of ceremonial rites, and by the word which we render ordinances, he means doctrine, and then (the word contained not being in the Greek) the sense is, that Christ, by his doctrine or commandments, abolished those ceremonial rites: the word commandments seems thus to be used, Deu 16:12 1 Kings 2:3 Ezekiel 18:21. Or else (which yet comes to the same) the word rendered ordinances signifies such ordinances as depended upon the sole will of the lawgiver; and is, Colossians 2:14, taken for ceremonial ones, and so is to be taken here. This the apostle seems to add, to show what part of the law was abrogated by Christ, viz. nothing of the moral law, but only the ceremonial.
See BibleHub: https://biblehub.com/commentaries/poole/ephesians/2.htm
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Indeed, I tried my best to educate you, hoping that you benefitted. If not then others reading this may have benefitted. Anyway, you have already said in your previous post that it would be “impossible for us(you and I) to discuss with each other” but you changed your mind and came back for some reasons, for which I am glad. Now, in case you change your mind again, make sure you truthfully answer my question about Numbers 31:17-18 that I asked you thus:
And also don’t forget to append the references to credible sources of the statistics of war casualties you posted on this thread.Averroes wrote: ↑Sun Oct 22, 2023 12:53 amYou say "Jesus is God." Is Jesus the same one who revealed the Torah to Moses? If so, is it the same Jesus who revealed to Moses Numbers 31:17-18
- 17 Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman that hath known man by lying with him.
18 But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves. [Numbers 31:17-18]