There are Objective Moral Facts

Should you think about your duty, or about the consequences of your actions? Or should you concentrate on becoming a good person?

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Veritas Aequitas
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Re: There are Objective Moral Facts

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Alexander_Reiswich wrote: Sat Jan 21, 2023 11:47 pm
FlashDangerpants wrote: Sat Jan 21, 2023 11:01 pm The whole reason he does any of this is to justify his assertion that one particular religion is the very very worst and most evil. Are you, mister German, going to take that extra step with him?
Have not heard of that, I'm curious as to how the argument goes.
The above from FDP is a strawman.
I posted in the other thread what is my purpose of my research into the Philosophy of Morality and Ethic which aligns with Kant overall philosophy covering the entirety of human nature, i.e.

1. What can I know - epistemology
2. What can I do - Morality & Ethics
3. What can I hope for - Perpetual Peace

I do have a separate project; I_lam is inherently Evil via its Constitution the Q_ran.
A clue in the following posts in the same thread;

The critical verse 5:33 which is one of the 300+ violent verse;
viewtopic.php?p=615939#p615939

The Critical term "fasadin" in 5:33
viewtopic.php?p=615939#p615939

A Muslim must enter into a contract with ALL, thus contractually bound to comply with all of ALlah's command in the Q_ran, i.e. 5:33 and other violent verses.
viewtopic.php?p=615967#p615967

Not to be discussed here.
If you are interested I can do so in the Religion Section.

Point is, if humanity can increase its MQ from 100 [2023] to 1500 [2123 or earlier] the majority of M_slims would naturally leave I_slam and convert to the pacifist Christianity other non-violent religions or be secular.
Veritas Aequitas
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Re: There are Objective Moral Facts

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Alexander_Reiswich wrote: Sat Jan 21, 2023 11:47 pm
FlashDangerpants wrote: Sat Jan 21, 2023 11:01 pm The whole reason he does any of this is to justify his assertion that one particular religion is the very very worst and most evil. Are you, mister German, going to take that extra step with him?
Have not heard of that, I'm curious as to how the argument goes.
The above from FDP is a false.
I posted in the other thread what is my purpose of my research into the Philosophy of Morality and Ethic which aligns with Kant's overall philosophical vision covering the entirety of human nature and humanity, i.e.
  • 1. What can I know - epistemology
    2. What can I do - Morality & Ethics [btw not deontological]
    3. What can I hope for - Perpetual Peace - Aesthetics, etc.
I do have a separate project;
I_lam is inherently Evil grounded on its Constitution the Q_ran.
A clue is in the following posts in the same thread;
Not to be discussed here.
If you are interested I can do so in the Religion Section.

Point is, if humanity can increase its MQ from 100 [2023] to 1500 [2123 or earlier] the majority of M_slims would naturally leave evil laden I_slam and convert to the pacifist Christianity, other non-violent religions or be secular.
Iwannaplato
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Re: There are Objective Moral Facts

Post by Iwannaplato »

Alexander_Reiswich wrote: Sun Jan 22, 2023 12:33 am I agree in regards to the communication and terminology, but I'm not sure if these problems are necessarily inherent in the argument itself.
To some degree I agree. I think he could have a potentially useful position/approach and one that does not necessarily immediately cause problems for PH and FDP. It's a pretty infected dialogue and his position has changed from a more deontological one to the current potentials one precisely due to criticism, though without acknowledging this.

I think the idea of looking for potential sources of behavioral/attitudinal in the nervous system/endocrine system, then having discussions about what direction we might want to go in, then trying to find ways of enhancing that direction is all peachy and without the more direct knowledge of modern neuroscience is a process that has been considered with the tools of parenting, culture, education for a long time. If he let go of using the term 'moral fact' in the way he does, or openly said he wants to use it in an idiosyncratic way and defined it clearly, it would probably go a long way. He also probably needs to admit that other people might want to choose to enhance other things in the brain, and he wouldn't be able to prove (another word he uses too often) that they are immoral to do that. But he could still advocate for the enhancements he prefers. I suspect that he thinks that if he lets go of certain terms, he can no longer be as effective as he wants to be.
To use your example about Vikings, it's true that they might have had greater aggressive potential and less inhibition to kill people (particularly from other cultures), but once they established their dominion, these features disappeared (to an extent), because they are not useful within their own culture.
To an extent. And also because it was not useful - given their goals at that stage. PH has said several times that the second meaning of ought, the non-deontological one, is perfectly valid use in the context of a goal. If you want to live to the age of 85 and be active, then one ought to.....(diet, exercise, avoiding X). That left an easy out for VA if he is not a moral objectivist to say, yes, if our goal is X, then we can.....That goal will not be an objective good, but something that we decide we want. And yes, our physiology might tend in certain directions. But it's not a moral fact, even in relation to health, that living a long time while one can be active, is the goal. Others might want to live hedonistically - and given the option significant numbers of members of most groups have chosen this priority - and sex, drugs and rock and roll lead to shorter lives, but humans seem to have a tendency to make that choice ALSO. And so even in the seemingly more objective realm of the values about health, we have a diversity and we cannot resolve the issue purely on physiology. And the ought varies given the prioritization of goals.
What this tells us is that there are two basic modes to human nature; we could call them externally-aggressive and internally-peaceful. Thus, when we aim to have a peaceful society, it's objectively correct to empower the latter. Since there is fairly strong inter-subjective consensus that this is indeed our goal, it's not a matter of personal preference.
Right. Though one of the problems today is that human interactions are much more causal at a distance, so things like empathy do not work well, given their sensory base. We may or may not be less agressive even intragroup, but our governments' economic and other policies may well kill hundreds of thousands without most of us noticing a single chunk of new sensory data. But yes, once you have the goal down, you can at least begin the discussion of what objectively can lead to this common goal. Something PH has said himself in relation to the two main meanings of ought.

I think even with common goals, however, it is much harder to know the effects of policy/actions in relation to it. We overestimate our ability to track consequences and further tend to ignore any 'side effects' that we cannot easily track (short term or long term). But that's a whole 'nother can of worms.
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FlashDangerpants
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Re: There are Objective Moral Facts

Post by FlashDangerpants »

I see the greatest mind of his generation has now endorsed all this, so I guess we should examine the most interesting claim.
Alexander_Reiswich wrote: Sat Jan 21, 2023 10:21 pm In my opinion, there is nothing wrong with this approach, because it's not prescriptive, but rather entirely descriptive.
  • There's a bunch of ways for something to be descriptive rather than prescriptiv, but you are barking up the wrong tree. VA's argument definitely does not describe our current moral landscape (at which accusations of "objectivity" could only be levelled by a lunatic).
  • If you think he is taking a non prescriptive approach to some future moral bliss you will be sadly disappointed to learn it is an eleminative reduction of morality, which he calls "morality-proper" and which does not concern itself with notions of good and bad amd if we are using the term descriptive for that sort of activity we have no use for such words at all.
There are other terms for applying the descriptive/prescriptive paradigm. We could be looking at the content of moral language itself for the descriptive / prescriptive components and thus a phrase such as 'You acted wrongly in stealing that money' might have descriptive value in a context where we take VA's lead and try not to use ideas of good and bad in our moralising.

IF VA's argument has that sort of application then I would be forced to update my opinion, as stripping the prescriptivity from our common understanding of 'You acted wrongly in stealing that money' and replacing it with a descriptive account of moral language that eschews non "objective" concepts like 'good' and 'bad' or right and wrong (which also don't reside within morality-proper) that would make the language itself descriptive rather than prescriptive.
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FlashDangerpants
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Re: There are Objective Moral Facts

Post by FlashDangerpants »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Sun Jan 22, 2023 4:52 am I_lam is inherently Evil grounded on its Constitution the Q_ran.
Nothing says the accusation was false quite like suddenly losing the ability to type the words Islam and Quran.
Peter Holmes
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Re: There are Objective Moral Facts

Post by Peter Holmes »

We can describe what people think is morally right and wrong, and what people think is beautiful and ugly. And we can try to explain why people think as they do about morality and aesthetics. And we can do these things by making factual assertions with truth-value - for example assertions about history, culture, physiology, genetics, neurology, and so on. VA's mirror neurons are an example.

All this interesting and useful activity is factual and therefore what we call objective.

But at no point in any of this, or as a result of this, can we say 'therefore, it's a fact that X is morally right/wrong' or 'therefore, it's a fact that X is beautiful/ugly. And yet those are, essentially, the claims that moral and aesthetic objectivists make.

The attempt to defend moral objectivism on the grounds that moral assertions are descriptive rather than prescriptive merely begs the question. For example, the claim 'abortion is morally wrong' is a description with a truth-value only if moral wrongness is a real property that abortion may or may not have.

The burden of demonstrating the actual existence of moral rightness and wrongness as properties is with moral objectivists. And deflecting attention from their failure to meet the burden by shifting the meaning of 'moral objectivity' doesn't work.
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Alexander_Reiswich
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Re: There are Objective Moral Facts

Post by Alexander_Reiswich »

Peter Holmes wrote: Sun Jan 22, 2023 10:44 am But at no point in any of this, or as a result of this, can we say 'therefore, it's a fact that X is morally right/wrong' or 'therefore, it's a fact that X is beautiful/ugly. And yet those are, essentially, the claims that moral and aesthetic objectivists make.
I agree -- VA's position in my opinion is comparable to utilitarianism in that it provides a perfectly reasonable, but still (inter-) subjective argument for what we collectively ought to base utility on. However, both utilitarianism and FSK theory are, in a strict sense, forms of moral subjectivism.

FSK theory promotes a revision of terminology in the hopes of facilitating moral progress. I don't think there's a realistic chance that this approach will be accepted by the scientific community and beyond it. It would be better to equip it with its own, distinct terminology instead.

Peter Holmes wrote: Sun Jan 22, 2023 10:44 am The attempt to defend moral objectivism on the grounds that moral assertions are descriptive rather than prescriptive merely begs the question. For example, the claim 'abortion is morally wrong' is a description with a truth-value only if moral wrongness is a real property that abortion may or may not have.

The burden of demonstrating the actual existence of moral rightness and wrongness as properties is with moral objectivists. And deflecting attention from their failure to meet the burden by shifting the meaning of 'moral objectivity' doesn't work.
Perfectly valid point. It's not possible to say that X is (objectively) immoral, as this implies that immorality is a property inherent to the act of abortion.

However, it seems to me that there is leeway in the way we define morality, which allows for perfectly reasonable alternative approaches.

For example, we can say that "moral" is any proposition that is required to be followed without exception, and "immoral" is any proposition that is required to never be followed, without exception. Based on this definition, we can arrive at certain inevitable conclusions. For one, we can conclude that any proposition which can't be followed is immoral. An example of this would be reverse burden of proof, which requires a person accused of a crime to produce proof that they did not commit the crime, which is essentially impossible.

Furthermore, we can also conclude that any proposition which must be contradicted during any attempt at following it must be immoral (as this would constitute an exception).

For example, if we define murder as "killing another person against their will", we can conclude that murder in this sense is immoral, because the person being murdered (the "victim") must contradict the proposition, since if they do not and as such willingly allow themselves to be murdered, it by definition doesn't constitute murder. But if they are unwilling, then the rule is being contradicted. As such, it is impossible to follow the proposition without exception, hence it's true that "murder is immoral".

What do you think about this approach?
Veritas Aequitas
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Re: There are Objective Moral Facts

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Alexander_Reiswich wrote: Sun Jan 22, 2023 6:21 pm
Peter Holmes wrote: Sun Jan 22, 2023 10:44 am But at no point in any of this, or as a result of this, can we say 'therefore, it's a fact that X is morally right/wrong' or 'therefore, it's a fact that X is beautiful/ugly. And yet those are, essentially, the claims that moral and aesthetic objectivists make.
I agree -- VA's position in my opinion is comparable to utilitarianism in that it provides a perfectly reasonable, but still (inter-) subjective argument for what we collectively ought to base utility on. However, both utilitarianism and FSK theory are, in a strict sense, forms of moral subjectivism.

FSK theory promotes a revision of terminology in the hopes of facilitating moral progress. I don't think there's a realistic chance that this approach will be accepted by the scientific community and beyond it. It would be better to equip it with its own, distinct terminology instead.
It is a strawman.
I do not relate 'rightness' and 'wrongness' to morality.

The FSK is not comparable to utilitarianism [consequences of right or wrong], but rather utilitarianism is merely a tool of the FSK theory of morality without the need to consider right or wrong.

Note my thermostat analogy, where right or wrong are not determinable features.

The scientific community deals with Science not Morality.
Rather the Morality FSK depend heavily on facts from the scientific FSK.

In the strictest sense everything is ultimately subjective, thus to state anything is subjective is moot.
Peter Holmes wrote: Sun Jan 22, 2023 10:44 am The attempt to defend moral objectivism on the grounds that moral assertions are descriptive rather than prescriptive merely begs the question. For example, the claim 'abortion is morally wrong' is a description with a truth-value only if moral wrongness is a real property that abortion may or may not have.

The burden of demonstrating the actual existence of moral rightness and wrongness as properties is with moral objectivists. And deflecting attention from their failure to meet the burden by shifting the meaning of 'moral objectivity' doesn't work.
Perfectly valid point. It's not possible to say that X is (objectively) immoral, as this implies that immorality is a property inherent to the act of abortion.

However, it seems to me that there is leeway in the way we define morality, which allows for perfectly reasonable alternative approaches.

For example, we can say that "moral" is any proposition that is required to be followed without exception, and "immoral" is any proposition that is required to never be followed, without exception. Based on this definition, we can arrive at certain inevitable conclusions. For one, we can conclude that any proposition which can't be followed is immoral. An example of this would be reverse burden of proof, which requires a person accused of a crime to produce proof that they did not commit the crime, which is essentially impossible.

Furthermore, we can also conclude that any proposition which must be contradicted during any attempt at following it must be immoral (as this would constitute an exception).

For example, if we define murder as "killing another person against their will", we can conclude that murder in this sense is immoral, because the person being murdered (the "victim") must contradict the proposition, since if they do not and as such willingly allow themselves to be murdered, it by definition doesn't constitute murder. But if they are unwilling, then the rule is being contradicted. As such, it is impossible to follow the proposition without exception, hence it's true that "murder is immoral".

What do you think about this approach?
In my case, abortion is objectively immoral grounded on the objective will-to-live.
But this is not to be adopted and imposed on a deontological basis.
It should be taken merely as a guide for moral progress for each individual and humanity.

If "abortion is objectively immoral grounded on the objective will-to-live" as an objective standard, then there are potentials for moral progress.
In this case, there is potential to reduce the number of abortion due to unplanned pregnancies. This is the application of utilitarianism & consequentialism within the FSK theory.
Here, we develop the planning abilities of individual and cultivate inhibitors to modulate the embedded primal lusts.

Since 'abortion is immoral' [never to use the terms 'right' or 'wrong'] and merely a standard as a guide, there is room for exceptions to optimize the welfare of humanity in any given unavoidable conditions.

I am not against abortion in the absolute [black or white] sense. Given the current psychological state of impulse control in our current phase of evolution, the permission for abortion is optimal. There are other circumstances where abortion is necessary and warranted.

However, all humans need to strive for a strong sense of the mindfulness that "abortion is immoral" as a moral standard [with allowances for exceptions] towards the future [not now].
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FlashDangerpants
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Re: There are Objective Moral Facts

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Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon Jan 23, 2023 12:06 pm I do not relate 'rightness' and 'wrongness' to morality.
And that is why your entire output is worthless.

You are not describing morality at all, you are substituting some alternative. Your moral theory is Genuine American Cheese, an unwholesome and alarming product with only a tenuous link to that which it purports to represent.
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Alexander_Reiswich
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Re: There are Objective Moral Facts

Post by Alexander_Reiswich »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon Jan 23, 2023 12:06 pm It should be taken merely as a guide for moral progress for each individual and humanity.
Which is why FSK theory is not a moral theory. This is not to say that it's invalid or a bad idea, but it simply doesn't qualify as a "moral" theory in the commonly understood sense.

A moral theory attempts to inform us about what we ought to do in a particular situation. FSK theory can inform us about what is beneficial to humanity in a general sense, but as you yourself point out, this can't be necessarily applied to an individual case. That's why the "moral facts" you're referring to are distinct from those we would expect from a moral theory in a more traditional sense.
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Sculptor
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Re: There are Objective Moral Facts

Post by Sculptor »

I was wondering of Veritas Aequitas could make a simple list of a handful of "moral facts" for us to discuss?
Veritas Aequitas
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Re: There are Objective Moral Facts

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Alexander_Reiswich wrote: Mon Jan 23, 2023 4:42 pm
Veritas Aequitas wrote: Mon Jan 23, 2023 12:06 pm It should be taken merely as a guide for moral progress for each individual and humanity.
Which is why FSK theory is not a moral theory. This is not to say that it's invalid or a bad idea, but it simply doesn't qualify as a "moral" theory in the commonly understood sense.

A moral theory attempts to inform us about what we ought to do in a particular situation. FSK theory can inform us about what is beneficial to humanity in a general sense, but as you yourself point out, this can't be necessarily applied to an individual case. That's why the "moral facts" you're referring to are distinct from those we would expect from a moral theory in a more traditional sense.
May be you have not read my point re; "in [...] mine"
A fact is a datum about one or more aspects of a circumstance, which, if accepted as true and proven true, allows a logical conclusion to be reached on a true–false evaluation. Standard reference works are often used to check facts.
Scientific facts [via the scientific FSK] are verified by repeatable careful observation or measurement by experiments or other means.

For example,
"This sentence contains words." accurately describes a linguistic fact [via linguistic FSK], and
"The sun is a star" accurately describes an astronomical fact [via Astronomy FSK]. Further,
"Abraham Lincoln was the 16th President of the United States" and "Abraham Lincoln was assassinated" both accurately describe historical facts [the specific history FSK].

Generally speaking, facts are independent of belief and of knowledge and opinion. [thus objective]
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fact
As from the above, the principle is, whatever is a fact must be conditioned upon a specific FSK -there is no other way.

As with the above,
in general, what are moral facts are derived from a basic moral FSK which deal with principles, elements and issues of morality.
The basic moral FSK can vary with specific moral FSK, e.g. the theistic moral FSK, the deontological moral FSK and so on.
This is like the basic scientific FSK with its sub-FSK, e.g. Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and so on.

Therefore the moral FSK model I proposed will contain the basic principles of a moral FSK plus whatever elements that are specific to my moral FSK model, i.e. with my definition of 'what is morality' and definition of terms, principles, assumptions, processes, etc.

My moral FSK model is applicable to humanity in general with moral facts as standards to guide every individual's moral progress [towards the future].
In this case, every individual will adopt this moral FSK model, then apply and practice for self-development of their moral competence [neural development] with personal responsibilities facilitated by assistance and synergy from the collective.

This is like developing a specific skill-set which must entail continual improvements of the neural correlates within the brain, mind and body via theories and practices.
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Alexander_Reiswich
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Re: There are Objective Moral Facts

Post by Alexander_Reiswich »

Veritas Aequitas wrote: Tue Jan 24, 2023 2:50 am This is like developing a specific skill-set which must entail continual improvements of the neural correlates within the brain, mind and body via theories and practices.
Exactly -- it's a philosophy for self-improvement. In other words, FSK theory is only applicable when people are already willing to become better human beings and simply want to gain deeper insight into the evolutionary / physiological / neurological foundation of our moral intuitions and cultural best practices.

But it can't be used to resolve disputes, to determine ethical standards and guidelines for organizations, industry and public institutions, to evaluate existing laws and derive new ones on the basis of "objective moral facts" and so on.

But talking of "objective moral facts" implies that all these things should be possible. As such, moral terminology seems inappropriate. But we can agree to disagree.
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Sculptor
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Re: There are Objective Moral Facts

Post by Sculptor »

I was wondering of Veritas Aequitas could make a simple list of a handful of "moral facts" for us to discuss?

Let me start...

Some people do not like the idea of dying.
popeye1945
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Re: There are Objective Moral Facts

Post by popeye1945 »

Sculptor wrote: Tue Jan 24, 2023 4:54 pm I was wondering of Veritas Aequitas could make a simple list of a handful of "moral facts" for us to discuss?

Let me start...

Some people do not like the idea of dying.
I second the motion!!!
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