Your above views of what is objectivity and what is mind is archaic and inherited from the bastardized philosophies of the logical positivists [now defunct] and classical analytic philosophy which had be debunked gradually by Wittgenstein then with Quine and Sellars hitting the last nails into its coffin.Peter Holmes wrote: ↑Sun Feb 28, 2021 11:45 am I suggest the standard phulosophical description of subjectivity as 'dependence on the mind' and objectivity as 'independence from the mind' comes from the metaphysical delusion that there are two substances: mind and matter (body) - and that therefore this distinction between subjectivity and objectivity is misleading.
What we have is brains, which are physical things in which physical processes occur. Our venerable talk about minds containing thoughts, ideas, feelings, desires, wants, opinions, intentions - updated and given a technical gloss with talk of concepts, percepts, consciousness and so on - all the panoply of what can be called mentalism - is and has always been just that: ways of talking about ourselves and our experience.
Since there is no thing that we call 'the mind', the claim that subjectivity is mind-dependence is incoherent - or, rather, we can be misled by talk of things being 'inside' and 'outside' the mind. And this confusion can inform what we mean by the words fact and objectivity. If 'objective' means 'outside the mind', then everything is objective, including our brains and their processes. And anyway, how can a supposed non-physical thing, such as the mind, have a location and a boundary separating 'inside' from 'outside'? The conceptual mess deepens into a mire.
Fortunately, an ordinary (non-philosophical) description of objectivity usually avoids talk of minds: 'independence from opinion when considering the facts'. And subjectivity is 'dependence on opinion, belief or judgement'. Sometimes, 'subjective' is also assumed to mean 'personal' or 'individual' - but this is confusing, because an individual can reason objectively - so this distinction isn't about who and how many people are involved.
My conclusion is that the subjective/objective distinction is about what we call facts, and whether and how much we use and refer to them. And, in terms of linguistic expression, this boils down to the function of an assertion: if it refers to or asserts the existence of a fact, then it's a factual assertion. If not, it's a non-factual assertion. So it follows that what we're arguing about is whether moral (and, as it happens, aesthetic) assertions are factual - with factual truth-value - or not.
(I'm also posting this at my other OP: Is morality objective or subjective?)
Your insistence on your definitions of the above are merely ideological and psychological as a therapy for your own mental disturbances.
The current understanding of what is philosophical objectivity is this;
What is Philosophical Objectivity?
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=31416
What is objective truths are conditioned upon a credible FSK/FSR and the principles thereby extracted has been put into practice and had benefited humanity tremendously.
What is mind
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mind
the principles also has been put into practice had benefited humanity tremendously.
Views?