Wtf? Humans have emotions. Yes. And? Why does that mean there are moral facts?Veritas Aequitas wrote: ↑Thu Dec 24, 2020 6:06 amOwn what? your stupidity?Peter Holmes wrote: ↑Wed Dec 23, 2020 10:48 amIf you think there are mental states and events that are different from physical states and events, then you are a substance dualist. Own it.Veritas Aequitas wrote: ↑Wed Dec 23, 2020 9:02 am
This is so pathetic, you are so ignorant and you do not know what substance realism is about.
Read it here https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/dualism/#SubDua
and you will note it has nothing to do with the OP.
Show me how the details I presented in the OP are related to substance realism as explained above.
My point is moral facts are like emotion-as-fact, i.e.
within the Psychological FSK, etc. there exist within our brain the set of neurons from various parts of the brain [emotion-as-fact] that will trigger emotional feelings when triggered by the appropriate stimuli.
It is the same with the sexual drive as fact, i.e.
within the Sexuality FSK, etc. there exist within our brain the set of neurons from various parts of the brain [sexual_drive-as-fact] that will trigger sexual feelings and behaviors when triggered by the appropriate stimuli.
The emotional and sexual potentials [supported by it physical parts] within all humans are not pure physical states, but non-physical states as potentials.
Thus,
within the moral FSK there exists within our brain the set of neurons from various parts of the brain [moral facts] that will trigger moral behavior when triggered by the appropriate stimuli.
You have not answered my question.
Do you agree, the potential-for-emotions in humans is a fact? Yes or No.
The above is not wrong and irrelevant to morality.But anyway, this is the same specious argument: we're 'programmed' not to do X; therefore X is morally wrong.
Or: we're 'programmed' with an emotional response - say, revulsion - to X; therefore X is morally wrong. The moral conclusion doesn't follow in either case.
The potential-for-emotions in humans is a fact as analogous to the potential-for-morality in human as a fact.
I did not relate emotions to morality in the above case, but merely their potentials are both psychological facts.
I don't prefer the term 'morally wrong' but where humans acts out of alignment with the inherent moral facts, that is a moral deviation from the norms within a moral framework and system.
It has moral implications when conditioned upon a moral framework and system.But if, instead, your preferred conclusion is: therefore X is inconsistent with our 'programming' - that is no longer a moral assertion, and has no moral implication. But that penny just won't drop for you.
Nul point.
The general principle is, a proposition has X implications when conditioned upon an X framework and system.
E.g. the common liquid we drink and use to bathe has scientific implications [i.e. is H20] when conditioned only upon the scientific [chemistry] FSK.
Same mistake every time. 'Here's a fact; therefore there's a moral fact.'
How can a fact be evidence for the existence of a moral fact? If consistency with a supposed moral fact is all you have to show the existence of moral facts - you ain't even made it to the starting post. Nul point.