Again you don't realize, like the logical positivists you are using your own specific meanings of what is fact to try to dominate philosophy and truths. Quine had already shown this intent is stupidity and madness.Peter Holmes wrote: ↑Mon Aug 03, 2020 10:53 amYes, facts are contextual. No, not all contexts can produce facts. A fact - a true factual assertion - in any context - requires empirical evidence. If 'slavery is morally wrong' is a fact, then it must have empirical evidence. There must be evidence for the existence of the moral wrongness of slavery. But there's no such thing. The moral wrongness of slavery isn't a feature of reality.Veritas Aequitas wrote: ↑Mon Aug 03, 2020 9:59 amWhy not?Peter Holmes wrote: ↑Mon Aug 03, 2020 9:34 am
As you know, if even one premise of an argument is false or unsupported, then the argument is unsound.
And your argument that, in your fantasy moral FSK, there are moral facts, such as 'x is morally wrong' is utterly fatuous. Your supposed moral FSK facts are merely moral assertions which are, as always, unentailed by the facts you claim entail them.
Try again, with premises that really are all factual. And don't include the premise that, in the moral FSK, this is a moral fact. That just begs the question.
I did not simply claim is moral fact is a moral fact, but I have provided the justification for the premise how a moral FSK produce moral facts.
I have demonstrate here, facts are contextual to their respective FSK,
supported by the arguments from the various threads I listed.
You are the problematic one because you are stuck in one dogmatic perspective of what is fact.
Saying " 'slavery is morally wrong' is a fact in the moral framework and system of knowledge" is fatuous, specious nonsense. It's an empty, useless claim. It isn't empirical evidence for the moral wrongness of slavery. Your claim is ridiculous and your argument absurd. But hey, why not keep going?
I have argued facts are contextual upon its specific FSK.
All FSK produce 'facts' but of degree of veracity, from low-zero to high-99.99%
Therefore a moral FSK produce Justified True Moral facts [beliefs].
Whatever is Justified as True Beliefs must be justified empirically and philosophically.
'Slavery is morally wrong' as justified from a Moral FSK is a moral fact [as argued above].
So where, what and how is the justification for 'slavery is morally wrong'?
I have already provided the details of the empirical evidences and philosophical justifications a 'thousand' times, so I am not repeating them again.
One point to note is, this moral fact is a mental state of 'ought' that is inherent in all human and represented by a neural algorithm.
This like [analogically] stating 'the hunger drive inherent in all humans' is a biological fact.
Thus there is a biological drive that no humans want to be enslaved by another, and this is a biological fact which when processed by the Moral FSK produce the moral fact,
"no human ought to enslave another'.
In a way this is a universal state of ought-not or inhibition with the human brain.
This neural inhibition is also represented by neural inhibitors.
Since the above is inherent in ALL humans [dormant in some, active in others] are grounded by neural inhibitors and neural algorithms the related moral facts are objective.
This is in addition to the the empirical evidences and philosophical justifications I mentioned above.