Slavery [all forms] Much Mitigated since 10,000 years ago?

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Veritas Aequitas
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Slavery [all forms] Much Mitigated since 10,000 years ago?

Post by Veritas Aequitas »

Immanuel Can wrote: Thu Mar 31, 2022 3:15 pmWhat we mean [by Slavery] is people being forced into things they are not choosing to do, through the use of power and without payment. That could refer to field labour, child labour, sex trafficking...and so on...but these are merely varieties of labour compelled by force.

It does not include things like contractual work you've agreed to do but now want more wages for. It does not include looking at the person down the street and hating him because he's richer than you. It doesn't include having to go to a job every day to provide for one's family. It does not include such things as volunteer work, either, which people do without money but still by their own choice. So it's not an automatic feature of any capitalistically-run economy, where labour is voluntary and unforced, and where work receives remuneration.

Simple. So let's stick to that.
Your above definition of 'slavery' is definitely different from my earlier topic of 'chattel slavery'.
This would be a new topic and OP.
On that definition, there are more slaves in the world now than at any time in previous history. So no, the human race is not getting better on that score. They're getting worse. And since much of today's slavery is outright human trafficking, sexual exploitation, and child labour, it's even worse than what you are trying to narrow the definition to cover. What traditional slave would not prefer to work in a field rather than to be serially raped to death instead?
Now we are dealing with a different 'kettle of fish', i.e. taking into all forms of slavery per your definition above [which I agree].

On this basis, your argument is too crude.
You just cannot based on merely quantum at present but must compare the relative % of the world's population.
There were already slaves 10,000 years ago where the world population of estimated to be around 5 million where 1% is 50,000.

In the period 1AD, the world population was around 200 million, thus 1% is 2 million.
At present we have 8 billion where 1% would be 80 million.
It is reported
In 2019, approximately 40 million people, of whom 26 percent were children, were enslaved throughout the world despite its being illegal.
Note 40 million at present is merely 0.5% of the population.
So in terms of relative %, we at present are better than the past.

Since you want to cover all types of slavery, i.e.;
1.1 Chattel slavery
1.2 Bonded labour
1.3 Dependents
1.4 Forced labour
For each category of slavery, you'll will need to give various weightages in terms of sufferings, psychological impact, degrees of freedom, legal or illegal, Global [UN], Government and NGOs involvements, etc.

I will argue 'Chattel Slavery' will be given a relatively higher weightage and thus its improvements over the past to the present will be higher.

Another point which I had mentioned is in the past all the above types of slavery were not restricted by laws but at the present all the above slavery are illegal. This is the most critical criteria of improvement of slavery over the past.

On estimate I believe in terms of all types of slavery, there are general improvements since the past 10,000 years ago to the present 2022.
These improvements are driven by the internally "programmed" moral potential within all humans.

In the above I have merely cover some criteria in consideration of the OP.
I believe there are more criteria to cover ensure the OP is covered rationally.

Do you agree with the OP, if not, why?
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Immanuel Can
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Re: Slavery [all forms] Much Mitigated since 10,000 years ago?

Post by Immanuel Can »

This post already replied to in the original thread.

I won't duplicate the discussion here.
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