The definition of what is Philosophical Objectivity;
- A proposition is considered to have objective truth when its truth conditions are met without bias caused by a sentient subject.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Objectivity_(philosophy)
Thus Objectivity is possible where there is more than "a sentient subject" and justified to be so.
What is pertinent for philosophy is Philosophical Objectivity which has practical utility for humanity.
See: What is Philosophical Objectivity?
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=31416
Yes! OBJECTIVITY IS always RELATIVE [not to MY POV but] to a Framework and System of Knowledge [FSK] and 'objectivity' cannot be absolutely absolute independent by itself without a FSK.Your personal bollocks. All you are saying is that any objective statements are objective only as they relate to your POV. In other words you are saying that OBJECTIVITY IS RELATIVE.As such a proposition can have objectivity if more than one person [preferably sufficient number of persons] derived a conclusion from a credible Framework and System of Knowledge [FSK] after filtering out as much biasness as possible.
Can you counter this?
Give me an example of objectivity that is absolutely absolute and independent and without any reference to a FSK?
All scientific facts [e.g. water is H2O] are objective and are not influenced by my or any individual scientist's personal feelings or opinions, i.e. it is not dependent by "a" sentient being as defined above.Okay give me some examples of objective statements not influenced by your personal feelings or opinions in considering and representing facts.Note the example of scientific knowledge which is accepted as the most objective and credible knowledge at present. The objectivity of scientific knowledge is conditioned upon the requirements of its FSK and consensus [intersubjective] of the relevant members.
So a credible Framework and System of Knowledge will remove all personal interests and bias to ensure the concluded knowledge is objective.
What is objectivity in this case is intersubjectivity conditioned upon a credible FSK.
For a moral statement to be objective, it must also be supported by objective scientific knowledge and be verified and justified within a moral framework and system.
All objective scientific facts are relative to the scientific framework constructed and sustained by a community scientists who are human.
There were no Objective-Scientific-Facts prior to Bacon [dcd 1292].
The objective fact that Joe Biden is the 46th President of the USA [do you deny this?] is not influenced by my or any other person's personal feelings or opinions.
But this objective political fact is relative to the political framework and that of the USA and conditioned by the underlying political feelings, opinions, judgment, biasness of those who voted for Biden.
Some Americans may dispute and will not accept it as an objective fact at all citing cheatings, etc.
However, in general you cannot deny "Joe Biden is the 46th President of the USA" is an objective political fact, and you cannot deny its objectivity is RELATIVE as conditioned upon a framework that is conditioned upon the collectively feelings and opinions of human who voted for Biden.
As such there are also objective moral principles that are leveraged upon a moral framework conditioned by humans. However there are no objective moral facts from an independent God and floating around independently of humans.
So what could make ANYTHING objective is intersubjectivity conditioned upon a framework and system of knowledge, e.g. scientific, MORAL, political, legal, social, economics, medical, etc.
So, OBJECTIVITY IS RELATIVE.
To insist objectivity can exists as real and independent [without] of any framework and system of knowledge [FSK] is delusional!
Any counter points to the above?