Contradiction Between Aristotelian Logic and Newtonian Physics

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Eodnhoj7
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Contradiction Between Aristotelian Logic and Newtonian Physics

Post by Eodnhoj7 » Sat May 09, 2020 8:41 pm

"For every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction" which necessitates P = -P. However the principle of non contradiction states P =/= -P. A contradiction between Newtonian physics and Aristotelian logic occurs.

Impenitent
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Re: Contradiction Between Aristotelian Logic and Newtonian Physics

Post by Impenitent » Sun May 10, 2020 12:39 am

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Arising_uk
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Re: Contradiction Between Aristotelian Logic and Newtonian Physics

Post by Arising_uk » Sun May 10, 2020 1:23 am

JohnDoe,
Why after all this time and repeated attempts to tell you that the "=" sign does not appear in Propositional Logic(PL) do you still keep using the symbol 'P' from PL? Why not use the Mathematical ones where it applies 'X=X'.? Maybe then you'll get some comprehension about what you talk about but I doubt it as the Mathematicians will then be confused as to why you are using 'X' to apply to non-mathematical objects. Also you still misunderstand negation as it is used in PL. This "P=¬P" is meaningless as is your application of it to the proposition "For every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction" as what you are saying is "For every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction" is the same as "It is not the case that for every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction" which is a contradiction and patently false.

Eodnhoj7
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Re: Contradiction Between Aristotelian Logic and Newtonian Physics

Post by Eodnhoj7 » Sun May 10, 2020 2:41 pm

Arising_uk wrote:
Sun May 10, 2020 1:23 am
JohnDoe,
Why after all this time and repeated attempts to tell you that the "=" sign does not appear in Propositional Logic(PL) do you still keep using the symbol 'P' from PL? Why not use the Mathematical ones where it applies 'X=X'.? Maybe then you'll get some comprehension about what you talk about but I doubt it as the Mathematicians will then be confused as to why you are using 'X' to apply to non-mathematical objects.

Also you still misunderstand negation as it is used in PL. This "P=¬P" is meaningless as is your application of it to the proposition "For every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction" as what you are saying is "For every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction" is the same as "It is not the case that for every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction" which is a contradiction and patently false.

"For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction" demands two assertions: that of the action and that of the opposite reaction. The first action is thetical, the second is antithetical. One is the opposite of the other thus is its negation. For example a "ball moving to the right" is a thetical assertion. The "ball not moving to the right" necessitates its antithetical assertion.

The "ball does not move to the right" necessitates the "ball moving to the left" as an opposite movement. So while the "ball not moving to the right" does not necessitate "the ball moving to the left" (as the ball can move up or down), the "ball moving to the left" is still a negative and falls under an opposite.

"In logic, the law of identity states that each thing is identical with itself. It is the first of the three laws of thought, along with the law of noncontradiction, and the law of excluded middle. However, no system of logic is built on just these laws, and none of these laws provide inference rules, such as modus ponens or DeMorgan's Laws.

In its formal representation, the law of identity is written "a = a" or "For all x: x = x", where a or x refer to a term rather than a proposition, and thus the law of identity is not used in propositional logic. It is that which is expressed by the equals sign "=", the notion of identity or equality. It can also be written less formally as A is A. One statement of such a principle is "Rose is a rose is a rose is a rose.""

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Law_of_identity

Who said I am limiting it to propositional logic? These laws reflect assertions, and are not limited to nor bounded as propositions. However each proposition can be counted as an assertion. Thus while the law of identity is not founded in propositional logic, it still implicitly exists.

Secondly, "=" can be replaced with "is", "therefore", "-->" or "<-->" as part of its implicit meaning.

Third, P is just a variable it can be replaced with Q or X or A in light of its usage.

The law of identity represents assertions.

TheVisionofEr
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Re: Contradiction Between Aristotelian Logic and Newtonian Physics

Post by TheVisionofEr » Mon May 11, 2020 9:25 pm

Eodnhoj7 wrote:
Sat May 09, 2020 8:41 pm
"For every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction" which necessitates P = -P. However the principle of non contradiction states P =/= -P. A contradiction between Newtonian physics and Aristotelian logic occurs.
The opposite of P is P in another direction. The -P is illicit. Aristotle didn't do abstract formal "logic." It must be conected to ordinary apprehension.

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Sculptor
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Re: Contradiction Between Aristotelian Logic and Newtonian Physics

Post by Sculptor » Mon May 11, 2020 10:02 pm

Eodnhoj7 wrote:
Sat May 09, 2020 8:41 pm
"For every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction" which necessitates P = -P. However the principle of non contradiction states P =/= -P. A contradiction between Newtonian physics and Aristotelian logic occurs.
no.

"For every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction" means p is p

Eodnhoj7
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Re: Contradiction Between Aristotelian Logic and Newtonian Physics

Post by Eodnhoj7 » Mon May 11, 2020 11:13 pm

TheVisionofEr wrote:
Mon May 11, 2020 9:25 pm
Eodnhoj7 wrote:
Sat May 09, 2020 8:41 pm
"For every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction" which necessitates P = -P. However the principle of non contradiction states P =/= -P. A contradiction between Newtonian physics and Aristotelian logic occurs.
The opposite of P is P in another direction. The -P is illicit. Aristotle didn't do abstract formal "logic." It must be conected to ordinary apprehension.
See above:

"For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction" demands two assertions: that of the action and that of the opposite reaction. The first action is thetical, the second is antithetical. One is the opposite of the other thus is its negation. For example a "ball moving to the right" is a thetical assertion. The "ball not moving to the right" necessitates its antithetical assertion.

The "ball does not move to the right" necessitates the "ball moving to the left" as an opposite movement. So while the "ball not moving to the right" does not necessitate "the ball moving to the left" (as the ball can move up or down), the "ball moving to the left" is still a negative and falls under an opposite.

Eodnhoj7
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Re: Contradiction Between Aristotelian Logic and Newtonian Physics

Post by Eodnhoj7 » Mon May 11, 2020 11:14 pm

Sculptor wrote:
Mon May 11, 2020 10:02 pm
Eodnhoj7 wrote:
Sat May 09, 2020 8:41 pm
"For every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction" which necessitates P = -P. However the principle of non contradiction states P =/= -P. A contradiction between Newtonian physics and Aristotelian logic occurs.
no.

"For every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction" means p is p
See above response.

Eodnhoj7
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Re: Contradiction Between Aristotelian Logic and Newtonian Physics

Post by Eodnhoj7 » Mon May 11, 2020 11:21 pm

Sculptor wrote:
Mon May 11, 2020 10:02 pm
Eodnhoj7 wrote:
Sat May 09, 2020 8:41 pm
"For every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction" which necessitates P = -P. However the principle of non contradiction states P =/= -P. A contradiction between Newtonian physics and Aristotelian logic occurs.
no.

"For every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction" means p is p
An action and opposite action are both terms, not propositions. One term is thetical another is antithetical. The thetical term is P. The antithetical term is -P. While -P is not limited to an opposite, the opposite is still a subset. For example a ball moving to the right has as its negation the ball not moving to the right. This may not be an opposite movement (up or down), yet its opposite (the ball moving to the left) is still the negation. So while negation does not limit itself to an opposite, it still contains its opposite as part of the phenomenon.

The thetical term contains as its opposite the antithetical term.

Keep in mind the usage of "term", not "proposition".

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Sculptor
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Re: Contradiction Between Aristotelian Logic and Newtonian Physics

Post by Sculptor » Mon May 11, 2020 11:50 pm

Eodnhoj7 wrote:
Mon May 11, 2020 11:13 pm
TheVisionofEr wrote:
Mon May 11, 2020 9:25 pm
Eodnhoj7 wrote:
Sat May 09, 2020 8:41 pm
"For every reaction there is an equal and opposite reaction" which necessitates P = -P. However the principle of non contradiction states P =/= -P. A contradiction between Newtonian physics and Aristotelian logic occurs.
The opposite of P is P in another direction. The -P is illicit. Aristotle didn't do abstract formal "logic." It must be conected to ordinary apprehension.
See above:

"For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction" demands two assertions: that of the action and that of the opposite reaction. The first action is thetical, the second is antithetical. One is the opposite of the other thus is its negation. For example a "ball moving to the right" is a thetical assertion. The "ball not moving to the right" necessitates its antithetical assertion.

The "ball does not move to the right" necessitates the "ball moving to the left" as an opposite movement. So while the "ball not moving to the right" does not necessitate "the ball moving to the left" (as the ball can move up or down), the "ball moving to the left" is still a negative and falls under an opposite.
That is not to say that P=-P

Eodnhoj7
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Re: Contradiction Between Aristotelian Logic and Newtonian Physics

Post by Eodnhoj7 » Mon May 11, 2020 11:51 pm

Sculptor wrote:
Mon May 11, 2020 11:50 pm
Eodnhoj7 wrote:
Mon May 11, 2020 11:13 pm
TheVisionofEr wrote:
Mon May 11, 2020 9:25 pm


The opposite of P is P in another direction. The -P is illicit. Aristotle didn't do abstract formal "logic." It must be conected to ordinary apprehension.
See above:

"For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction" demands two assertions: that of the action and that of the opposite reaction. The first action is thetical, the second is antithetical. One is the opposite of the other thus is its negation. For example a "ball moving to the right" is a thetical assertion. The "ball not moving to the right" necessitates its antithetical assertion.

The "ball does not move to the right" necessitates the "ball moving to the left" as an opposite movement. So while the "ball not moving to the right" does not necessitate "the ball moving to the left" (as the ball can move up or down), the "ball moving to the left" is still a negative and falls under an opposite.
That is not to say that P=-P
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

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