Page 1 of 1

Godwins Law - why not applicable to Stalinist-accusations?

Posted: Fri Mar 01, 2019 9:39 pm
by philosopher
As an online discussion grows longer, the probability of a comparison involving Nazis or Hitler approaches 1
If you compare anyone to nazi, you've lost the discussion.
So says the supporters of the Godwin-law, even if the ones you compare to Hitler are... neo-nazis.

But i'd like to ask a question here:

Why is there no problems in comparing pro-welfare-ists (those who wants tax paid welfare state) with Stalinist mass-murder terror regime?
Why is it totally fine to say to anyone left-leaning they are commies?

Re: Godwins Law - why not applicable to Stalinist-accusations?

Posted: Sat Mar 02, 2019 4:14 am
by gaffo
USSR is gone 30 yrs or so now. they never had a "Lobby" in the West, and if they had, it would have died 30 yrs ago also.

the Israeli lobby is alive and well, had been for 70 yrs and counting. they are now at war with BDS and anyone like myself who values civil rights/equity (i.e. Palistinians in WB should be allowed Israeli citizenship and full rights (too late for 2-state now), and calls out Naziyahoo's thuggery and the Israeli policy of Apartied - is an "anti-semite"

so in otherwords thier is not Stalinist Lobby, but their sure is a Hasbara army of net-bots to uphold the Godwin Law - even when it is not warranted.