To avoid having to repeat my explanation why I qualify 'absolutely mind-independent,' here is is the 'WHY'.
PH's basis of why 'Morality cannot be Objective' is based on his
'what is fact' which a fact is a feature of reality that is just-is, being-so, that is the case, state of affairs, that is independent of human opinions, beliefs, judgement, description, moral rights or wrongs; this is a claim of philosophical realism i.e.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Philosophical_realism
I have already explained a '1000' times.Iwannaplato wrote: ↑Thu Sep 14, 2023 8:37 am What's the difference between 'absolutely mind independent reality' and
'mind independent reality.'?
If something is mind indenpendent, then it doesn't depend on minds. It's not partially indepdendent.
So what gets added when you write 'absolutely.?
As an empirical realist I accept in one perspective reality and things are mind-independent, e.g. the oncoming train on the track I am standing on exists as a mind-independent thing, thus it rational I will jump off the train track ASAP.
If I don't think that way, then it is assume, the existence of the train is in my mind and thus I should be able to think it away, etc.
But this view of mind-independent is relative and conditioned upon my ANTI-Philosophical_Realism view which is cannot be mind-independent.
Since I am claiming my perspective of mind-independence as an empirical-realist is relative, i.e. conditional to my ANTI-Philosophical_Realism view, it is literally relative, thus it is relative mind-independence.
The philosophical-realist view of mind-independence is unconditional i.e. thing exists independently by themselves, thus appropriately labelled absolutely mind-independent.
I don't see how the above more elaborate explanation is problematic, it is only your ignorance and narrow thinking that you are confused with it.