Search found 13 matches
- Wed Feb 10, 2016 10:50 pm
- Forum: Philosophy of Language
- Topic: Can 'definition' be 'axioms'?
- Replies: 17
- Views: 5167
Re: Can 'definition' be 'axioms'?
...there are statements of definition which are true as self-referential rules of language . ... That could be said to be directly behind what I mean by truth value (I think). And I don't imagine giving examples would help much! I guess truly and literally defining what 'true' or 'false' exactly me...
- Wed Feb 10, 2016 9:47 pm
- Forum: Philosophy of Language
- Topic: Can 'definition' be 'axioms'?
- Replies: 17
- Views: 5167
Re: Can 'definition' be 'axioms'?
So what would your definition of truth value be then?Obvious Leo wrote:
It seems to me that all you're saying is that true statements are true and false statements are false, ...
I would like to see it to see if it is any better.
- Tue Feb 09, 2016 10:55 pm
- Forum: Philosophy of Language
- Topic: Can 'definition' be 'axioms'?
- Replies: 17
- Views: 5167
Re: Can 'definition' be 'axioms'?
I also agree with JSS. Syllogisms in formal logic always take the IF/THEN form. IF we accept that proposition A is true THEN we can conclude that proposition B is also true. In this sense proposition A is accepted as conditionally true, which makes it either an axiom, postulate or theorem, dependin...
- Tue Feb 09, 2016 7:37 pm
- Forum: Philosophy of Language
- Topic: Can 'definition' be 'axioms'?
- Replies: 17
- Views: 5167
Re: Can 'definition' be 'axioms'?
In formal logic, can a 'definition' be (but not necessarily I presume?) or consist of one or more 'axioms'? And can an 'axiom' itself have a 'truth value'? (albeit in a trivial way I presume) ... So Yes a definition can be an axiom, and Yes axioms have truth value. And declarative definitions are a...
- Tue Feb 09, 2016 3:20 pm
- Forum: Philosophy of Language
- Topic: Can 'definition' be 'axioms'?
- Replies: 17
- Views: 5167
Re: Can 'definition' be 'axioms'?
Define "truth value". either 'true' or 'false'. By the definition of 'proposition' (in formal logic), all propositions are statements that have truth values in the sense that what they mean is either 'true' or 'false'. I admit I haven't read through these two links thoroughly and properly...
- Tue Feb 09, 2016 10:38 am
- Forum: Philosophy of Language
- Topic: Can 'definition' be 'axioms'?
- Replies: 17
- Views: 5167
Can 'definition' be 'axioms'?
In formal logic, can a 'definition' be (but not necessarily I presume?) or consist of one or more 'axioms'?
And can an 'axiom' itself have a 'truth value'? (albeit in a trivial way I presume)
And can an 'axiom' itself have a 'truth value'? (albeit in a trivial way I presume)
- Sun Feb 07, 2016 11:37 am
- Forum: Philosophy of Language
- Topic: Does 1+1=2 have a "probability"?
- Replies: 29
- Views: 7106
Re: Does 1+1=2 have a "probability"?
You know, there are only five different kinds of people in this world; those that can count and those that can't. I guess he must be the forth kind....
5-2 = 2??
New Math?
- Sat Feb 06, 2016 11:10 am
- Forum: Philosophy of Language
- Topic: Does 1+1=2 have a "probability"?
- Replies: 29
- Views: 7106
Re: Does 1+1=2 have a "probability"?
sorry, misprint in my last post: "I define a definition that as a truth value.." should be; "I define a definition that has a truth value..." Sorry, ; still not right. That should be: "I define a definition that has a truth value of 'true' ..." and twice I said that wr...
- Sat Feb 06, 2016 11:02 am
- Forum: Philosophy of Language
- Topic: Does 1+1=2 have a "probability"?
- Replies: 29
- Views: 7106
Re: Does 1+1=2 have a "probability"?
sorry, misprint in my last post:
"I define a definition that as a truth value.."
should be;
"I define a definition that has a truth value..."
"I define a definition that as a truth value.."
should be;
"I define a definition that has a truth value..."
- Sat Feb 06, 2016 10:55 am
- Forum: Philosophy of Language
- Topic: Does 1+1=2 have a "probability"?
- Replies: 29
- Views: 7106
Re: Does 1+1=2 have a "probability"?
Perhaps all I have to show that they are 'right' or 'wrong' is to either show that there is a good general agreement that the definition of triangle is a shape with 3 sides, or show there is general disagreement to that definition? You got it. But I fear there is a big thorny issue here of whether ...
- Sat Feb 06, 2016 7:54 am
- Forum: Philosophy of Language
- Topic: Does 1+1=2 have a "probability"?
- Replies: 29
- Views: 7106
Re: Does 1+1=2 have a "probability"?
But what if they got it wrong? :? What if in reality a triangle has four sides? What if 1+1 really equals 3? How would you know?? :shock: :roll: :wink: :lol: Perhaps all I have to show that they are 'right' or 'wrong' is to either show that there is a good general agreement that the definition of t...
- Thu Feb 04, 2016 7:39 pm
- Forum: Philosophy of Language
- Topic: Do definitions have truth values?
- Replies: 14
- Views: 5481
Do definitions have truth values?
I always thought all non-contradictory definitions are 'true by definition' (or at least providing people are in general agreement of that definition) i.e. they are simply 'true'. But then a friend made me unsure because he insisted they don't. He says all non-contradictory definitions have no truth...
- Thu Feb 04, 2016 5:44 pm
- Forum: Philosophy of Language
- Topic: Does 1+1=2 have a "probability"?
- Replies: 29
- Views: 7106
Does 1+1=2 have a "probability"?
I am fairly sure but not absolutely sure that, according to strictly conventional terminology for philosophy ( and probability theory I assume ), statements such as "1+1=2" or "all triangles have three sides" don't have a 'probability' but merely have a 'truth value' i.e. it is s...